Is there any difference between the meanings of the above sentences?

Could one use both, if I have merely given an inarticulate cry (no words)?

Both of your sentences have the same literal meaning, but I'd avoid using the first one simply because "cry out for" is sometimes used as an idiom to indicate an obvious need. Example: "Look at that beige couch. It's just crying out for some colorful pillows."

"I cried out for John to see me" could be taken to mean that I was begging for John's attention.

So if I say:

I yelled so that John would notice me.
and:
I yelled for John to notice me.

there is no difference.

In both cases, I might have yelled out some words or I might have given an inarticulate yell?

Last Edited on 19-Aug-2008 6:56 AM

"I yelled so that John would notice me" tells me that you are yelling, making sound, to attract his attention.

"I yelled for John to notice me" implies that you yelled "Hey, John! Over here!"