BrianG
6 post s
23-May-2008
9:05 AM
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It has been far too long ago since I had Latin, so someone help me, please. I'm doing some theological writing and need to understand the difference between these two phrases though I find the same translation given for both. non posse peccare
non potuit peccare I've determined that "posse" is the present infinitive and "potuit" the 3rd per perfect indicative active. That's as far as I can go.
Last Edited on 23-May-2008 9:10 AM
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Endi
319 post s
23-May-2008
11:32 AM
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Is this what you wanted:
http://www.monergism.com/thethreshold/articles/onsite/four-fold.html
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BrianG
7 post s
23-May-2008
12:16 PM
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Endi, I know that site very well. No, I'm trying to determine the difference between the "posse" and the "potuit". I understand the theology of non posse peccare (with which I agree) but don't get whatever subtle difference there may be between the two words.
Last Edited on 23-May-2008 12:21 PM
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OldGuy
65 post s
23-May-2008
6:27 PM
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It's been a long time since I saw Latin too, but isn't the difference between these two lines simply that the first is just a phrase and the second is a sentence? Not able to sin. He was not able to sin. Just ignore me if I'm missing it.
Last Edited on 23-May-2008 6:28 PM
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CeeBee
1759 post s
23-May-2008
7:27 PM
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OldGuy got it!
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Endi
323 post s
26-May-2008
2:29 AM
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You might want to try here:
http://groups.google.co.uk/group/alt.language.latin/topics?hl=en&lnk=rgh
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